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Chris Lightfoot

"full damages for the losses they have caused"

-- how are these likely to be computed? The usual gag from music-industry types is to assume that each infringing copy corresponds to one lost sale, but of course there's no evidence that this is accurate, and plenty that it isn't. So what's the basis on which the court would compute the damage done?

Peter

In short, we don't know because these are the first cases of their kind. Usually, there would be the option of claiming an account of profits, but obviously these are free downloads so that won't apply.

The general rule is that the successful claimant is entitled to be put in the position it would have been if the infringement had not taken place. The court will often look at the likely price of a licence at the going rate - so that might well mean looking at the price of downloads and the number of downloads made. There is also the option of claiming additional damages for deliberate infringement, and the legal costs of bringing the action. However, as you say, the defendants will probably argue that this is not an accurate measure of the income the record companies would have received if the downloading hadn't taken place.

If these cases do not settle earlier (and I expect that they will), it will be interesting to see how the court resolves this.

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